UGC NET Higher Education System Questions

1. Members of the Union Public Service Commission function for

(a) 60 years

(b) 58 years

(c) 62 years

(d) 65 years

2. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to

(a) Make people aware of politics

(b) Decentralize the power of democracy

(c) Educate the peasants

(d) None of the above

3. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Gujarat

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Bihar

4. Under which of the following amendments, the historic Panchayati Raj Bill was passed by the Parliament in 1992 (a) 70th Amendment

(b) 72nd Amendment

(c) 74th Amendment

(d) 68th Amendment

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission? I The Central Information Commission is a statutory body. II The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. III The Commission can impose a penalty up to a maximum of 25,000/- IV It can punish an errant officer. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) I and II only

(b) I, II, and IV

(c) I, II, and III

(d) II, III, and IV

6. Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Gram Panchayat

(c) Zila Parishad

(d) Panchayat Samiti

7. Which article of the constitution directs the government to organize village panchayats?

(a) Article 32

(b) Article 40

(c) Article 48

(d) Article 51

8. NITI Aayog is a

(a) Statutory body

(b) Executive body

(c) Autonomous body

(d) Advisory and non-statutory body

9. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

10. Who holds the power of judicial review in India?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Supreme Court

(d) Parliament

11. Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and

(a) Seven judges

(b) Nine judges

(c) Twenty-Five judges

(d) Thirty judges

12. What is the minimum duration of a stay, before a person can apply for Indian citizenship?

(a) Five years

(b) Three years

(c) Seven years

(d) Ten years

13. CAG is the Chief Accountant and Auditor for

(a) Union Government

(b) State Governments

(c) Union and State Governments

(d) Neither Union nor State Government

14. Ministry of Human Resource Development includes

(a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy

(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education

(c) Department of Women and Child Development

(d) All of the above

15. A uniform civil code has been recommended in the Directive Principles to ensure

(a) To control the population growth

(b) National security

(c) National integration

(d) Support for weaker sections of society

16. The language which enjoys special status in Article 351 of the Constitution of India as the primary source language for the development of the official standard of Hindi is

(a) Sanskrit

(b) Tamil

(c) Bhojpuri

(d) Maithili

17. Which of the following is the official language(s) as per Indian constitution?

(a) Hindi

(b) English

(c) Hindi with English as an additional language

(d) No official language

18. The National Language of India is

(a) Hindi

(b) English

(c) Both English and Hindi

(d) No national language

19. Which of the following High Courts gave ruling that India has no national language?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Gujarat

(c) Lucknow

(d) Patna

20. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, also popular as Right to Education Act (RTE Act) was enacted in the year

(a) 2008

(b) 2009

(c) 2010

(d) 2011

21. Right to Education Act (RTE) makes it mandatory to provide free and compulsory education for children age group between

(a) 6 and 14 years

(b) 6 and 12 years

(c) 8 and 14 years

(d) None of the above

22. The Right to Education Act came into force in the year

(a) 2008

(b) 2009

(c) 2010

(d) None of the above

23. Which of the following articles of constitution states that the official language of the union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script?

(a) 343 (1)

(b) 356

(c) 75

(d) 351

24. The first language to have been assigned the status of classical language in 2004 is

(a) Tamil

(b) Sanskrit

(c) Kannada

(d) Malayalam

25. Odia has been assigned the status of classical language in February 2014. With this, the number of classical languages in India is

(a) Three

(b) Four

(c) Five

(d) Six

26. Ninety-third Constitution Amendment Bill seeks

(a) To grant statehood to Uttaranchal

(b) To make elementary education compulsory

(c) To make army service mandatory

(d) None of the above

27. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the state to provide free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) fundamental rights

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Special Provisions related to certain classes

28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.

(a) Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State, and Cabinet Ministers

(b) Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers, and Cabinet Ministers

(c) Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers, and Deputy Ministers

(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers

29. Which of the following pairs of articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt with by them are correctly matched? I Article 352: Proclamation of emergency II Article 370: Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir III Article 14: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment IV Article 40: Organization of village panchayats Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

(a) I and II

(b) II, III, and IV

(c) I, II, and IV

(d) I, III, and IV

30. Which of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of a state in India?

(a) His role as Chancellor of the universities in the state

(b) His power to dismiss the ministry

(c) His power to dissolve the state Legislative Assembly

(d) His power to return a bill to the state Legislative Assembly for reconsideration

31. If Prime Minister of India belongs to the upper house of Parliament,

(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion

(b) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the lower house

(c) He can make statements only in the upper house

(d) He becomes a member of the lower house within six months after being sworn-in as the Prime Minister

32 Two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R), are given: Assertion (A): The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require constitutional amendment. Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate 33% seats they contest to women candidates without any constitutional amendment. In the context of these two statements, which of the following is correct?

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

33. Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India? I The President shall not be member of either house of Parliament II The Parliament shall consist of the President and two houses Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Neither I nor II

(b) Both I and II

(c) I alone

(d) II alone

34. Match List I with List II: List I (Article of constitution) List II (Subject) A Art 54 I President’s Election B Art 75 II Prime Minister Appointment C Art 155 III Appointment of Governor D Art 164 IV Appointment of Chief Minster Codes:

(a) A-IV, B-II, C-III and D-I

(b) A-I, B-III, C-II and D-IV

(c) A-I, B-II, C-III and D-IV

(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I

35 Which of the following amendments relates to the local government institutions?

(a) 52nd Amendment

(b) 73rd Amendment

(c) 66th Amendment

(d) 70th Amendment

36. The real executive authority of the state is

(a) The Governor

(b) The Speaker

(c) The Council of Ministers

(d) The Chief Justice of High Court

37. Which of the following is the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India so far?

(a) 24th Amendment

(b) 30th Amendment

(c) 42nd Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment

38. The only President of India who was elected unopposed is

(a) S. Radhakrishnan

(b) Dr Zakir Hussain

(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

39. Which of the following state Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration of tribal areas? (a) Odisha

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Bihar

(d) Assam

40. The normal tenure of the Governor of a state is

(a) Five years

(b) Till he/she enjoys the confidence of the President

(c) Till he/she enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister

(d) None of the above

41. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the

(a) President, on the recommendation of the Governor

(b) Parliament

(c) Parliament after the state Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect

(d) Governor on a recommendation by the state cabinet

42. Which of the following introduced Indian Penal Code?

(a) Lord Macaulay

(b) Lord Dalhousie

(c) Lord Curzon

(d) Lord Ripon

43. Constitution of India does not mention the post of

(a) Deputy Prime Minister

(b) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(c) Deputy Speaker of the state Legislative Assembly

(d) None of the above

44. Which of the following age groups is taken into consideration for constituting Gender Parity Index for higher education?

(a) 15–22 years

(b) 18–23 years

(c) 16–22 years

(d) 18–25 years

45. There was a major announcement in Budget 2016-17 in the form of Higher Education Funding Agency. Which of the following statements are correct in this context?

I. An initial capital base of Rs 1,000 cr

II. Joint participation of Government and philanthropic donors

III. Quality infrastructure in IITs, NITs, IIITs, etc.

Codes:

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III

(d) All of the above

46. According to 2011 Census Report, the difference between literacy rates of men and women in India is about

(a) 10%

(b) 17%

(c) 21%

(d) 27%

47. For equality of educational opportunities among women, the Constitution has provision under (i) Article 45 (ii) Article 15(3) (iii) Article 16(1) and (2) (iv) All the above Which of the above is correct?

(a) Only (i) is correct.

(b) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(c) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(d) (iv) is correct.

48. Equality of educational opportunities is possible by

(a) Extending portals of educational institutions to all without any discrimination

(b) Opening more educational institutions

(c) Privatizing the education system in the country

(d) Public funding of Education

49. Who have signed MOU for recognition of Teacher Education in Special Education Programme in India?

(a) NCTE and NAAC

(b) RCI and NCERT

(c) NCDS and RCI

(d) RCI and NCTE

50. National youth day, observed across India on 12 January commemorates the birth anniversary of which famous Indian personality?

(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(b) Swami Vivekanand

(c) Aurobindo Ghosh

(d) Rabindranath Tagore