Friday, 14 December 2018

UGC NET COMMUNICATION APTITUDE QUESTION


1. A classification of body movements is called
(a) Emblems
(b) Non-verbal
(c) Displays
(d) Kinesics

2. Movements of the face that convey emotional meanings are called
(a) Displays
(b) Emblems
(c) Eye contact
(d) None of the above

3. Touch is an important element in
(a) Business communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Intrapersonal communication
(d) None of the above

4. Which of the following is less important in the context of effective communication?
(a) Total control over language
(b) Good vocabulary
(c) Attractive personality of the speaker
(d) Total control on the content to be transacted

5. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Communicator should have fine senses
(b) Communicator should have tolerance power
(c) Communicator should be soft spoken
(d) Communicator should have good personality

6. Which of the following are parts of active listening?
(a) Eye contact
(b) Nodding
(c) Seeking clarification
(d) All of the above

7. Evaluative listening is successful when we
(a) Accurately distinguish stimuli in a message
(b) Infer the meaning of a message
(c) Critically assess the accuracy of facts stated in a message
(d) None of the above

8. One will be an effective communicator if one
(a) Is a humorous speaker
(b) Has histrionic talents
(c) Is very clear about what one communicates
(d) Communicates in one’s mother tongue

 9. Effective communication will make the receivers
(a) Enjoy it
(b) Accept it
(c) Pass it on to others
(d) Think about it

10. Effective communication takes place when
(a) Source is attractive and authoritarian
(b) Message design incorporates audience
(c) Modern communication technologies are used
(d) Receivers are passive components

11. Which of the following is not a successful communication?
(a) One who presents material in a precise and clear way
(b) One who is able to adopt himself/herself according to the language of the communicatee
(c) One who knows a lot but is somewhat reserve in his/her attitude
(d) One who sometimes becomes informal before the receiver and develops rapport

12. The most important aspect of communication, that is, listening can be improved by
(a) Making the attention fully paid
(b) Making the communicated material novel-interesting and need based
(c) Making voice effective and impressive
(d) All of the above

13. The process of communication is enhanced through
(a) Belongingness
(b) Security and freedom to make choices
(c) Information of meeting and avoidance of pressure
(d) All of the above

14. Which of the following can help the most in enhancing the effectiveness of active listening?
(a) Developing apathy with the sender
(b) Developing a system to minimize the noise in the area
(c) Paying attention to the body language of the sender
(d) Developing empathy with the sender

15. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?
(a) Medium is the message
(b) The world is an electronic cocoon
(c) Information is power
(d) Telepathy is technological

16. Postmodernism is associated with
(a) Newspapers
(b) Magazines
(c) Radio
(d) Television

17. In communication, the language is
(a) The non-verbal code
(b) The verbal code
(c) The symbolic code
(d) The iconic code

18. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points are referred to as
(a) Networked media
(b) Connective media
(c) Nodal media
(d) Multimedia

19. Writing in a personal diary or otherwise recording one’s thoughts and feelings are examples of
(a) Mediated intrapersonal communication
(b) Mediated interpersonal communication
(c) Mediated mass communication
(d) None of the above

20. In communication, chatting in internet is
(a) Verbal communication
(b) Non-verbal communication
(c) Parallel communication
(d) Grapevine communication

21. Interpersonal communication occurs only when
(a) A person exchanges idea with another one as a unique individual
(b) A large number of people are communicating with each other at the same time
(c) Only friends are talking
(d) None of the above

22. Non-verbal messages are
(a) Overestimated in importance
(b) Attempts at manipulation and should be ignored
(c) Generally irrelevant to overall message meaning
(d) Important for a listener to understand

23. Intrapersonal communication helps one
(a) Learn about oneself
(b) To know what others are thinking
(c) Communicate with the general public
(d) To become a talented public speaker

24. Communication between two or more people is called
(a) Organizational communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Extrapersonal communication
(d) Intrapersonal communication

25. In interpersonal communication, ethics are (a) Important
(b) Communication barriers
(c) Ineffective
(d) None of the above

Thursday, 13 December 2018

UGC NET TEACHING APTITUDE QUESTIONS


1. The main aim of National Council for Teacher Education is
(a) To open colleges of education
(b) To promote research in education
(c) To maintain standards in colleges of education
(d) To provide grant to colleges of education

2. Kindergarten system of education was constituted by
(a) T. P. Nunn
(b) Spencer
(c) Froebel
(d) Montessori

3. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in
(a) 1961
(b) 1962
(c) 1963
(d) 1964

4. The main purpose of new education policy is
(a) To provide equal opportunity of education to all
(b) To improve the whole education system
(c) To link education with employment
(d) None of the above

5. It is desirable that students play games in the campus as
(a) It makes them physically fit
(b) It lessens the burden on the teacher
(c) It develops co-operation and physical balance
(d) None of the above

6. Family is the main agency of
(a) Informal education
(b) Formal education
(c) Non-formal education
(d) None of the above

7. To whom the responsibility of organization of curricular activities should be stored with?
(a) The principal
(b) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(c) The teachers who take interest in it
(d) All the teachers

8. The aim of education should be
(a) To develop vocational skills in the students
(b) To develop social awareness in the students
(c) To prepare the students for examination
(d) To prepare the students for practical life

9. The contribution of taxpayers in primary education is in the form of
(a) Income tax
(b) Tuition fee
(c) Paying money for individual tuition
(d) Educational cess

10. The priority to girls education should be given because
(a) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(b) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(c) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(d) Only girls are capable of leading for social change

11. The success of integrated education depends on
(a) The support of community
(b) The excellence of textbooks
(c) The highest quality of teaching–learning material
(d) The attitudinal changes in teachers

12. The quality of schools education exclusively depends upon
(a) Infrastructural facilities
(b) Financial provisions
(c) International support
(d) The quality of teacher’s education

13. The idea of Basic Education was propounded by
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

14. The in-service teacher training can be made more effective by
(a) Using training package which is well prepared in advance
(b) Making it a residential programme
(c) Using cooperative approach
(d) Practicing training follow-up procedures

15. Who developed the interaction analysis category system in education for increasing the teacher’s effectiveness?
(a) Flander
(b) Rayon
(c) Amidon and Simon
(d) Richard Over

16. One of the important theories of moral development was proposed by
(a) Laurence Kohlberg
(b) Erik Fromm
(c) Daniel Coleman
(d) Benjamin Bloom

17. Character is developed by
(a) Will power
(b) Conduct and behaviour
(c) Morality
(d) All of the above

18. Spare the rod and spoil the child. This assumption is related to the type of discipline which has been advocated
(a) By naturalist philosophy
(b) By pragmatist philosophy
(c) In Victorian Era
(d) In Democratic Era

19. The determinant of teaching skill training is
(a) Components
(b) Pupil–teacher
(c) Supervisor
(d) Headmaster

20. Which of the following is an approach to educational planning?
(a) Manpower approach
(b) Social demand approach
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

21. ‘Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains’. This statement was given by
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) Jean Jacques Rousseau
(c) John Dewey
(d) W.H. Kilpatrick

22. The purpose of National Education Policy is
(a) Universalization of primary education
(b) Vocationalization of education
(c) To review the education
(d) To give equal opportunity of education to all

23. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
(a) Supervise the work of their wards
(b) Arrange for extra tuition
(c) Remain unconcerned about it
(d) Interact with teachers frequently

24. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his or her ward in the examination, the teacher should
(a) Try to help him
(b) Ask him not to talk in those terms
(c) Refuse politely and firmly
(d) Ask him rudely to go away

25. When the children become mischievous and disobedient in the classroom, the teacher should examine
(a) Home background of the students
(b) Influence of outside elements in class
(c) Teaching methods and subject knowledge
(d) Co-curricular and other attractions in the school

Wednesday, 12 December 2018

UGC NET Higher Education System Questions


1. Members of the Union Public Service Commission function for

(a) 60 years
(b) 58 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 65 years

2. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to
(a) Make people aware of politics
(b) Decentralize the power of democracy
(c) Educate the peasants
(d) None of the above


3. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar

4. Under which of the following amendments, the historic Panchayati Raj Bill was passed by the Parliament in 1992 (a) 70th Amendment
(b) 72nd Amendment
(c) 74th Amendment
(d) 68th Amendment

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission? I The Central Information Commission is a statutory body. II The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. III The Commission can impose a penalty up to a maximum of 25,000/- IV It can punish an errant officer. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II, and IV
(c) I, II, and III
(d) II, III, and IV

6. Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) Panchayat Samiti

7. Which article of the constitution directs the government to organize village panchayats?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 48
(d) Article 51

8. NITI Aayog is a
(a) Statutory body
(b) Executive body
(c) Autonomous body
(d) Advisory and non-statutory body

9. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

10. Who holds the power of judicial review in India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Parliament

11. Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and
(a) Seven judges
(b) Nine judges
(c) Twenty-Five judges
(d) Thirty judges

12. What is the minimum duration of a stay, before a person can apply for Indian citizenship?
(a) Five years
(b) Three years
(c) Seven years
(d) Ten years

13. CAG is the Chief Accountant and Auditor for
(a) Union Government
(b) State Governments
(c) Union and State Governments
(d) Neither Union nor State Government

14. Ministry of Human Resource Development includes
(a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(c) Department of Women and Child Development
(d) All of the above

15. A uniform civil code has been recommended in the Directive Principles to ensure
(a) To control the population growth
(b) National security
(c) National integration
(d) Support for weaker sections of society

16. The language which enjoys special status in Article 351 of the Constitution of India as the primary source language for the development of the official standard of Hindi is
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Tamil
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Maithili

17. Which of the following is the official language(s) as per Indian constitution?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Hindi with English as an additional language
(d) No official language

18. The National Language of India is
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Both English and Hindi
(d) No national language

19. Which of the following High Courts gave ruling that India has no national language?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Gujarat
(c) Lucknow
(d) Patna

20. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, also popular as Right to Education Act (RTE Act) was enacted in the year
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2011

21. Right to Education Act (RTE) makes it mandatory to provide free and compulsory education for children age group between
(a) 6 and 14 years
(b) 6 and 12 years
(c) 8 and 14 years
(d) None of the above

22. The Right to Education Act came into force in the year
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) None of the above

23. Which of the following articles of constitution states that the official language of the union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script?
(a) 343 (1)
(b) 356
(c) 75
(d) 351

24. The first language to have been assigned the status of classical language in 2004 is
(a) Tamil
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Kannada
(d) Malayalam

25. Odia has been assigned the status of classical language in February 2014. With this, the number of classical languages in India is
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six

26. Ninety-third Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
(a) To grant statehood to Uttaranchal
(b) To make elementary education compulsory
(c) To make army service mandatory
(d) None of the above

27. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the state to provide free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) fundamental rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Special Provisions related to certain classes

28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
(a) Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State, and Cabinet Ministers
(b) Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers, and Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers, and Deputy Ministers
(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers

29. Which of the following pairs of articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt with by them are correctly matched? I Article 352: Proclamation of emergency II Article 370: Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir III Article 14: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment IV Article 40: Organization of village panchayats Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II, III, and IV
(c) I, II, and IV
(d) I, III, and IV

30. Which of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of a state in India?
(a) His role as Chancellor of the universities in the state
(b) His power to dismiss the ministry
(c) His power to dissolve the state Legislative Assembly
(d) His power to return a bill to the state Legislative Assembly for reconsideration

31. If Prime Minister of India belongs to the upper house of Parliament,
(a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the lower house
(c) He can make statements only in the upper house
(d) He becomes a member of the lower house within six months after being sworn-in as the Prime Minister

32 Two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R), are given: Assertion (A): The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require constitutional amendment. Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate 33% seats they contest to women candidates without any constitutional amendment. In the context of these two statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

33. Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India? I The President shall not be member of either house of Parliament II The Parliament shall consist of the President and two houses Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Neither I nor II
(b) Both I and II
(c) I alone
(d) II alone

34. Match List I with List II: List I (Article of constitution) List II (Subject) A Art 54 I President’s Election B Art 75 II Prime Minister Appointment C Art 155 III Appointment of Governor D Art 164 IV Appointment of Chief Minster Codes:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-III and D-I
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II and D-IV
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III and D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I

35 Which of the following amendments relates to the local government institutions?
(a) 52nd Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 66th Amendment
(d) 70th Amendment

36. The real executive authority of the state is
(a) The Governor
(b) The Speaker
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) The Chief Justice of High Court

37. Which of the following is the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India so far?
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 30th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment

38. The only President of India who was elected unopposed is
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr Zakir Hussain
(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

39. Which of the following state Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration of tribal areas? (a) Odisha
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam

40. The normal tenure of the Governor of a state is
(a) Five years
(b) Till he/she enjoys the confidence of the President
(c) Till he/she enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
(d) None of the above

41. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the
(a) President, on the recommendation of the Governor
(b) Parliament
(c) Parliament after the state Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
(d) Governor on a recommendation by the state cabinet

42. Which of the following introduced Indian Penal Code?
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Ripon

43. Constitution of India does not mention the post of
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Deputy Speaker of the state Legislative Assembly
(d) None of the above

44. Which of the following age groups is taken into consideration for constituting Gender Parity Index for higher education?
(a) 15–22 years
(b) 18–23 years
(c) 16–22 years
(d) 18–25 years

45. There was a major announcement in Budget 2016-17 in the form of Higher Education Funding Agency. Which of the following statements are correct in this context?
I. An initial capital base of Rs 1,000 cr
II. Joint participation of Government and philanthropic donors
III. Quality infrastructure in IITs, NITs, IIITs, etc.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) All of the above

46. According to 2011 Census Report, the difference between literacy rates of men and women in India is about
(a) 10%
(b) 17%
(c) 21%
(d) 27%

47. For equality of educational opportunities among women, the Constitution has provision under (i) Article 45 (ii) Article 15(3) (iii) Article 16(1) and (2) (iv) All the above Which of the above is correct?
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(d) (iv) is correct.

48. Equality of educational opportunities is possible by
(a) Extending portals of educational institutions to all without any discrimination
(b) Opening more educational institutions
(c) Privatizing the education system in the country
(d) Public funding of Education

49. Who have signed MOU for recognition of Teacher Education in Special Education Programme in India?
(a) NCTE and NAAC
(b) RCI and NCERT
(c) NCDS and RCI
(d) RCI and NCTE

50. National youth day, observed across India on 12 January commemorates the birth anniversary of which famous Indian personality?
(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Tuesday, 11 December 2018

UGC NET ICT QUESTIONS


1. In comparison to secondary storage, primary storage is
(a) Slower and lesser expensive
(b) Faster and more expensive
(c) Faster and lesser expensive
(d) Slower and more expensive

2. The two kinds of main memory are
(a) ROM and RAM
(b) Primary and secondary
(c) Floppy diskette and compact diskette
(d) None of the above

3. The act of retrieving existing data from memory is called
(a) Read-out
(b) Read from
(c) Read
(d) All of the above

4. RAM is used as short memory as it is
(a) Expensive
(b) Small capacity
(c) Programmable
(d) Volatile

5. The computer memory used for temporary storage of data and program is called
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) EROM
(d) EPROM

6. The memory which is programmed at the time of its manufacturing is
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) PROM
(d) EPROM

7. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
(a) CPU
(b) ALU
(c) Floppy diskette
(d) None of the above

8. The most important advantage of a video disk is
(a) Compactness
(b) Potential capacity
(c) Durability
(d) Cost effectiveness

9. Floppy disks which are made from flexible plastic material are also called?
(a) Hard disks
(b) High-density disks
(c) Diskettes
(d) Templates

10. What is the latest write-once optical storage media?
(a) Digital paper
(b) Magneto-optical disk
(c) WORM disk
(d) CD-ROM disk


11. What is the full form of http?
(a) HyperText Transmission Protocol
(b) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(c) HyperTerminal Transport Protocol
(d) HyperTerminal Transfer Protocol

12. The protocol dealing with transfer of hypertext between two or more computers is
(a) HTML
(b) FTP
(c) HTTP
(d) TCP

13. IRC stands for
(a) Internet Related Chat
(b) Internet Relay Chat
(c) Internet Related Content
(d) None of the above

14. Line access and avoidance of collision are main functions of
(a) CPU
(b) Monitor
(c) Network protocols
(d) Wide area networks

15. Which of these are types of internet connections?
(a) SLIP
(b) DIAS
(c) PPP
(d) All of the above

16. Internet’s initial development was supported by
(a) ARPANET
b) Bill Rogers
(c) Bill Gates
(d) Microsoft

17. The Internet Explorer was invented and released by
(a) Microsoft
(b) WIPRO
(c) Sun Microsystems
(d) Infosys

18. Gopher protocol is used to
(a) distributing documents over the Internet
(b) searching documents over the Internet
(c) retrieving documents over the Internet
(d) All of the above

19. World Wide Web was proposed by
(a) Bill Gates
(b) ARPANET
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Bill Rogers

20. What are the uses of the Internet?
(a) Communication
(b) Information retrieval
(c) Presentation of information
(d) All of the above

21. The type of digital telephone service, used for transferring large chunks of data to and from the Internet without a modem is
(a) ISDN
(b) MSDN
(c) TSDN
(d) None of the above

22. The term/protocol used for open wireless technology for data exchange over short distances is (a) ISDN
(b) Bluetooth
(c) Wi-Fi
(d) None of the above

23. ISDN stands for
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network
(b) Intelligent Services Digital Network
(c) Individual Services Digital Network
(d) Image Services Digital Network

24. Wired Ethernet is basically
(a) ADSL
(b) ISDN
(c) Broadband
(d) The Internet

25. The software that permits a user—with a click of mouse—to locate, display, and download text, video, audio, and graphics stored in a host computer on the web is a
(a) Web browser
(b) Domain
(c) URL

(d) None of the above